How to Pass Microsoft 70-486 Practice Exam

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Latest Microsoft 70-486 exam questions and answer:
QUESTION 11
Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?
A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath
F. RPVST
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When multicast traffic is a required design element, why is the Cisco UCS 6248UP a better choice than the Cisco UCS 6140XP?A. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not allow multicast traffic propagation.
B. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not support IGMP snooping on uplink interfaces.
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP employs separate unicast and multicast egress queues.
D. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports PIM dense mode rendezvous points.
E. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports dynamic queue mapping of IGMP v3 requests.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two devices require a connection to an external switch for East-West switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3548
B. Cisco UCS 6248UP
C. Cisco UCS 2208XP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco UCS 6296UP
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.
B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.
C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.
D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.
E. Stop using redundant power supplies.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall
E. GLBP
F. ECMP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
What technology is necessary to support vPC+?
A. MPLS
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vCenter
E. RPVST
F. MST
Correct Answer: C

What is configured on an NHRP to trigger failover if an SVI goes down?
A. BPDU
B. weight
C. interface priority
D. object tracking
E. local preference
F. cost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two devices operate only at OSI Layer 2? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5548
C. Cisco Nexus 5596
D. Cisco Nexus 5020
E. Cisco Nexus 3016
F. Cisco Nexus 2248
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 19
What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure?
A. LACP
B. OTV
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. FabricPath
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP
G. MPLS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 21
Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa transactions.
Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP addressing?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Clustered
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. InlineE. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which two devices are Cisco recommended for a ToR data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 24
Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4004
C. Cisco Nexus 3064
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco Nexus 2248T
Correct Answer: AD

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Latest CISM certification exam questions and answers
QUESTION 2
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
B. Encryption, roaming and security policy
C. Authentication, roaming and security policy
D. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
E. Encryption, authentication and security policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode
B. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
C. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
E. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
F. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 6
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device
D. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
B. Fresnel zone obstructions
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255
C. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
Correct Answer: D

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The 98-364 exam is a 98-364 question assessment that tests candidates on the integration options of Microsoft. It covers voice messaging deployment scenarios, and the implementation of Microsoft. The 98-364 exam dumps also covers Microsoft Prime Collaboration features and the role of Microsoft TelePresence Management Suite in a Microsoft Unified Collaboration solution.


Latest 98-364 exam dumps questions and answers
QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft 70-483 Dumps, 100% Free 70-483 Real Exam

Do you want to actually pass the 70-483 exam 100% successfully so you can do a better job or take work to the next level? These days, no problem where you look for the profession, every type of organization is looking for IT experts, due to which you must keep an IT certification in the area you wish to get a job. With 70-483 exam dumps Certified Professional certification, you will be establishing new gates of tasks.


Latest Microsoft 70-483 dumps questions and answers (29Q&As)
QUESTION 101
You want to save an image with file size compression but NO loss in image quality. Which file format should you select?
A. TUFF
B. JPEG
C. Adobe Photoshop EPS
D. Adobe Photoshop DCS 2.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 102
You want a color correction to be applied to images as their data is sent to a printer. Which option on the Output pop-up menu of the Print Options dialog box should you use?
A. Bleed
B. Screen
C. Transfer
D. Background
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 103
You have created a quadtone image and need to print separations. It is important that the screen angle of each color is _______.
A. 53 lpi
B. different
C. the same
D. diamond shaped
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 104
You have created a Photoshop document that contains two spot channels. You need to place the graphic din a page layout application. Which file format should you use to save the document?
A. PNG
B. Scitex CT
C. Adobe Photoshop EPS
D. Adobe Photoshoe DCS 2.0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 105
Which option is available when you save file in EPS format?
A. Matte
B. Transparency
C. Baseline Optimized
D. Include Halftone Screen
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 106
For duotone images, what has an impact to how the color in the image will appear in print?
A. the order in which the colors are printed.
B. the order in which the layer in file were created.
C. the Preview selected in the Save As DCS 2.0 dialog box.
D. the amount of bleed specified in the Output pop-up menu of the Print Options dialog box.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 107
With which format can you save a document and maintain all alpha channels and layers?
A. EPS
B. PNG
C. PDF
D. BMP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 108
Which three file format allow you to save layer information in the File? (Choose three.)
A. PSD
B. PDF
C. EPS
D. JPEG
E. TIFF
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 109
Which option is available when saving an image as Photoshop EPS?
A. Interlaced
B. Matte Color
C. LZW Compression
D. Include Halftone Screen
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 110
You are printing a 72 ppi image and choose to scale the image to 50% in the Print Options dialog box. To which resolution will the image be printed?
A. 36 ppi
B. 72 ppi
C. 144 ppi
D. 360 ppi
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 111
On PostScript Level 2 or higher printers that have interpolation capability, what occurs when you select Interpolation in the Print Options dialog box?
A. A low resolution image will automatically be resampled up.
B. A low resolution image will automatically be resampled down.
C. A high resolution image will automatically be resampled up.
D. A high resolution image will automatically be resampled down.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 112
Exhibit: You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 113
You are working with a 3 inch 5 inch image that will be printed on gloss paper with a line screen of 133. Which resolution should you use for the image.
A. 60 ppi
B. 85 ppi
C. 133 ppi
D. 266 ppi
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 114
You want to place multiple copies of a source image on a single page. Which Automate command should you use?
A. Fit Image
B. Contact Sheet
C. Picture Package
D. Web Photo Gallery
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 115
What is and advantage of using Every-line composer when creating paragraph type?
A. Line breaks can be controlled manually.
B. Text is more evenly spaced with fewer hyphens.
C. Each line is evaluated independent for the best line break.
D. Hyphenation is preferred over compressed or expanded letter spacing.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 116
Exhibit:
You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 117
You are working with a 3 inch 5 inch image that will be printed on gloss paper with a line screen of 133. Which resolution should you use for the image.
A. 60 ppi
B. 85 ppi
C. 133 ppi
D. 266 ppi
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 118
You want to place multiple copies of a source image on a single page. Which Automate command should you use?
A. Fit Image
B. Contact Sheet
C. Picture Package
D. Web Photo Gallery
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 119
What is and advantage of using Every-line composer when creating paragraph type?
A. Line breaks can be controlled manually.
B. Text is more evenly spaced with fewer hyphens.
C. Each line is evaluated independent for the best line break.
D. Hyphenation is preferred over compressed or expanded letter spacing.
Correct Answer: B

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The Latest Cisco 300-135 Exam PDF,Help You Pass Exam Easily

The Latest Cisco 300-135 Exam Guide

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Do you plan to participate in the 70-533 implementation of Microsoft Azure infrastructure solution?

In this guide, we will answer common questions about how to prepare and implement the test of Microsoft Azure infrastructure solutions through 70-533. You can subscribe to our updated newsletter on this topic.

Where can I find more information about Microsoft Azure certification?

You can find every Microsoft Azure certification available on Microsoft’s official website, which is more relevant to cloud platform and infrastructure.
The function of cloud platform is designed to meet the growing demand of infrastructure and software services (SaaS), and Microsoft Azure solution is needed.

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Experienced people implement infrastructure solutions at Microsoft Azure.
Experienced implementation and monitoring of cloud and hybrid solutions.
Familiarity with application lifecycle management support.
Azure certification exam 70-533 includes Azure App application design and implementation services; create and manage Azure resource management virtual machines; implement the design of storage strategy; implement Azure Active Directory; implement virtual network, and deploy the arm template design.

What are the skills that have been measured in this test?

This certification test, you can complete the following tasks. The percentage represents the relative weight of each topic in the examination. The higher the percentage, the more problems you may see in the content area.

What is the general survey?

The test has the following test information:
The question of multiple choices and multiple answers (40-60).
120 minutes to complete the exam
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Examples show that candidates can read sentences or questions, and choose the information that is the most correct or best answer option.
For more information about exam questions, please see Microsoft exam policy. Microsoft exam may include adaptive testing technology and simulation projects. Microsoft did not determine the format of the exam. In order to help you prepare for this exam, Microsoft recommends you have practical experience with the product and use the designated training resources.

If I fail in the exam, can I take the exam without any extra cost?

If you haven’t passed the Microsoft Azure certification exam, you can take a test if you meet the following requirements.
You have to wait 14 days before you can do it again.
From the date of the first trial, you can take three exams in a year.
The candidate must be for every exam.
It will take 5 days to cancel or rearrange the exam. Fail to take part in your exam appointment, or at least 24 hours before your appointment, will make all your examination fees rearranged or cancel the appointment loss.
What is the current market requirement for Azure certification?
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